Surgical Op Report Quiz
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Surgical Op Report Quiz
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Patient: Mrs. Russell
X-ray left foot: Three views
Impressions: Fracture of distal phalanx, first digit. Fractures of second and third digits (phalangeal). There is a fracture of the proximal portion of the first-digit phalanx. A comminuted fracture is noted in the middle phalanx of the second digit, and an increased density is seen medially in the joint space of the middle phalanx of the third and fourth digits. Oblique films confirm displaced fragment of bone between the second and third digits. No other abnormalities are present or noted. The office owns and operates the x-ray equipment and concludes the interpretation.Correct
73630-LT.This report is for a three-view x-ray and reported without modifier -26 or -TC because Dr. Levitt completed both the professional and technical components.
Incorrect
73630-LT.This report is for a three-view x-ray and reported without modifier -26 or -TC because Dr. Levitt completed both the professional and technical components.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Patient:Jack
History: Jack fell from a ladder six months ago and broke his left radius.
Indications: The fracture is not healing as expected and the implant needs to be replaced.
Operation: Open treatment with internal fixation of the radial neck, including replacement of the prosthetic radial head.Correct
24666-LT. You can find the procedure in the index of the CPT under Fracture/Radius/Head/Neck/Open Treatment. The location of the treatment (bone and area) is important when coding for fractures.
Incorrect
24666-LT. You can find the procedure in the index of the CPT under Fracture/Radius/Head/Neck/Open Treatment. The location of the treatment (bone and area) is important when coding for fractures.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Brief history of present illness: 26-year-old female with a history of nephrolithiasis. She complained of left-sided flank discomfort with hematuria, dysuria, and passage of fragments. This morning she presented to the ED with increased left and right side flank pain. She underwent CT with contrast of the abdomen and pelvis showing approximately eight right renal calculi ranging between 2 and 12 mm and 10 left renal calculi ranging between 5 and 8 mm with possible nephrocalcinosis based on the radiologist’s interpretation. Dr. Stone, the urologist, consulted with the patient, reviewed results of the CT scan, and discussed treatment options. The patient signed an informed consent for the following procedure.
Postoperative diagnosis: Bilateral nephrolithiasis
Procedure: Lithotripsy, extracorporeal shock wave. She was given 1 g Ancef®, brought to the operating room, and placed supine on the lithotripsy table. With fluoroscopy, the right and left kidneys were evaluated with no overlying bowel gas, stool, or bowel contents; multiple stones were visualized (R. 8 and L. 10). The ureters were examined and showed no stones or fragments present. Stones were targeted for treatment via extracorporeal shock wave with successful breakdown and flush. After treatment, the patient was awakened in the operating room and extubated without difficulty. She was taken to recovery in stable condition.Correct
N20.0, 50590. Signs and symptoms associated routinely with a disease process are not reported unless instructional notes in ICD-10-CM indicate otherwise. To find this rule, review the ICD-10-CM introduction for conditions that are an integral part of the disease process.The procedure can be found under Lithotripsy/Kidney.
Incorrect
N20.0, 50590. Signs and symptoms associated routinely with a disease process are not reported unless instructional notes in ICD-10-CM indicate otherwise. To find this rule, review the ICD-10-CM introduction for conditions that are an integral part of the disease process.The procedure can be found under Lithotripsy/Kidney.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Patient:Brooke,a 9 month old girl.
Procedure: Radiologic exam for osseous survey of the axil and appendicular skeleton to look for current and/or old healed fractures.
Diagnosis: Probable fracture to right arm.Correct
77076.You can locate the procedure in the index of the CPT® Professional Edition under Xray/Bone/Osseous Survey. The correct code indicates infant in the description.The diagnosis wont be reported as probable cases are not reported.
Incorrect
77076.You can locate the procedure in the index of the CPT® Professional Edition under Xray/Bone/Osseous Survey. The correct code indicates infant in the description.The diagnosis wont be reported as probable cases are not reported.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Operation: 1.Thumb nail remnant excision.
2.Nail matrix obliteration.
Diagnosis: Left thumb nail remnant.
Anaesthesia: General.
Procedure: In the preoperative holding area the site and side and the procedure were confirmed with the patient. The risks, benefits, and alternatives were discussed, particularly recurrence. He voiced understanding and desired to proceed. After adequate general anesthesia, the left hand was carefully fitted with a finger cot after it had been prepped and draped in sterile fashion. Using loupe magnification the nail remnant was carefully excised. Copious irrigation was utilized. A sterile dressing was applied, and the patient was aroused from anesthesia and taken to the recovery room having tolerated the procedure well.Correct
ICD is L60.8 and CPT is 11750-FA.Main term in the CPT index is Excision, modifying term nails, codes 11750-11752.Code 11750 is selected because the tuft of distal phalanx was not amputated.Modifier -FA is added to indicate left thumb.
Incorrect
ICD is L60.8 and CPT is 11750-FA.Main term in the CPT index is Excision, modifying term nails, codes 11750-11752.Code 11750 is selected because the tuft of distal phalanx was not amputated.Modifier -FA is added to indicate left thumb.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Right breast mass with atypical proliferative cells on fine-needle aspiration
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Benign breast mass.
ANESTHESIA: General
NAME OF OPERATION: Excision of right breast mass.
PROCEDURE: With the patient in the supine position, the right breast was prepped and draped in a sterile fashion. A curvilinear incision was made directly over the mass in the upper-outer quadrant of the right breast. Dissection was carried out around a firm mass, which was dissected with surrounding margins of breast tissue. Hemostasis was obtained using electrocautery. Frozen section exam showed a fibroadenoma with some proliferative hyperplasia within the fibroadenoma, but appeared benign. The breast tissues were approximated using 4-0 Vicryl. The skin was closed using 5-0 Vicryl running subcuticular stitches. A sterile bandage was applied. The patient tolerated the procedure well.Correct
ICD is N63 for breast mass and19120-RT for excision of right breast mass.
Incorrect
ICD is N63 for breast mass and19120-RT for excision of right breast mass.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Ovarian cyst, persistent.
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Ovarian cyst.
ANESTHESIA: General
NAME OF OPERATION: Diagnostic laparoscopy and drainage of cyst.
PROCEDURE: The patient was taken to the operating room, prepped and draped in the usual manner, and adequate anesthesia was induced. An infraumbilical incision was made, and Veress needle placed without difficulty. Gas was entered into the abdomen at two liters. The laparoscope was entered, and the abdomen was visualized. The second puncture site was made, and the second trocar placed without difficulty. The cyst was noted on the left, a 3-cm, ovarian cyst. This was needled, and a hole cut in it with the scissors. Hemostasis was intact. Instruments were removed. The patient was awakened and taken to the recovery room in good condition.Correct
The cpt for laparoscopic aspiration or drainage of ovarian cyst is 49322 and icd is N83.20.
Incorrect
The cpt for laparoscopic aspiration or drainage of ovarian cyst is 49322 and icd is N83.20.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Carpal tunnel syndrome, right.
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Carpal tunnel syndrome, right.
ANESTHESIA: General
NAME OF OPERATION: Right open carpal tunnel release.
FINDINGS AT OPERATION: The patient had identical, very thick, transverse carpal ligaments, with dull synovium.
PROCEDURE: Under satisfactory anesthesia, the patient was prepped and draped in a routine manner .The right upper extremity was exsanguinated, and the tourniquet inflated. A curved incision was made at the the ulnar base, carried through the subcutaneous tissue and superficial fascia, down to the transverse carpal ligament. This was divided under direct vision along its ulnar border, and wound closed with interrupted nylon. The wound was injected, and a dry, sterile dressing was applied. An identical procedure was done to the opposite side. The patient left the operating room in satisfactory condition.Correct
Cpt is 64721-RT and icd is G56.01 as it is in the right upper limb.
Incorrect
Cpt is 64721-RT and icd is G56.01 as it is in the right upper limb.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Right hydradenitis, chronic.
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Right hydradenitis, chronic.
NAME OF OPERATION: Excision of right chronic hydradenitis.
ANESTHESIA: Local.
FINDINGS: This patient had previously had excision of hydradenitis. However, she had residual disease in the right axilla with chronic redraining of the cyst from hydradenitis. This now is controlled and it was found to be suitable for excision. There was an area in the right axilla which needed to be excised.
PROCEDURE: Under local infiltration and after routine prepping and draping, an elliptical incision was first made on the right side to encompass the area of chronic hydradenitis. This wound was then irrigated with saline. The skin was closed using interrupted 5-0 nylon.This appeared to encompass all of the active area of hydradenitis.
The needle counts were all correct. No intraoperative complications were encountered. Dressings were applied, and the patient was returned to the recovery room in satisfactory condition.Correct
Cpt is 11450-RT and icd is L73.2.
Incorrect
Cpt is 11450-RT and icd is L73.2.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
DIAGNOSIS: Desires vasectomy.
NAME OF OPERATION: Vasectomy.
ANESTHESIA: General.
HISTORY: Patient, 37, desires a vasectomy.
PROCEDURE: Through a midline scrotal incision, the right vas was identified and separated from the surrounding tissues, clamped, transected, and tied off with a 4-0 chromic. No bleeding was identified.
Through the same incision the left side was identified, transected, tied off, and dropped back into the wound. Again no bleeding was noted.
The wound was closed with 4-0 Vicryl times two. He tolerated the procedure well. A sterile dressing was applied. He was awakened and transferred to the recovery room in stable condition.Correct
CPT 55250
Incorrect
CPT 55250
Quiz7
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Quiz 7
Ten questions to test your skill
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Which of the following are included in the Mental and Behavioral Disorders section of ICD-10-CM :
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A cigarette smoker visits her physician who prescribes smoking cessation medication. How will the encounter be coded as:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A patient suffering from sudden onset of eczematoid otitis externa of the right ear:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Which condition refers to worsening or decompensation of a chronic condition and is not equivalent to an infection superimposed on the chronic condition but could be triggered by the infection.
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Which is proper coding for brachytherapy isodose planning that uses five sources in two channels?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Which is the best code/service type to report medication management alone in an outpatient setting?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
The prefix, “peri-” means:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
The prefix in the word, “tachycardia” means:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Which modifier describes Diagnostic mammogram converted from screening mammogram on same day:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
XE” modifier is appended for
Correct
Incorrect
Quiz6
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Quiz 6
Ten questions
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A child comes for MMR, DTap, Tetanus/Diptheria ,Hepatitis A vaccinations. What would the ICD code be for such an encounter?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Patient hits a street pole while learning to ride a bike. Which code would be reported in such a case?
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Posterior subluxation of left shoulder would be coded as:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A patient presents with atresia of esophagus with broncho-esophageal fistula. The ICD-10 code would be:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A patient visits a nephrologist for nephrotic syndrome with diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis.
What will be the ICD 10 code for such an encounter:Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A rheumatologist sees a patient having rheumatoid polyneuropathy with rheumatoid arthritis of both hands.The code for this visit would be:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A condition where the esophagus cannot pass the food down is:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Acute Rheumatic Endocarditis will be coded as:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Hypertensive heart with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) 5 with heart failure will be coded as:
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
What will be the code for a patient diagnosed with Ischemia Cardiomyopathy and has a history of tobacco dependence.
Correct
Incorrect
Start challenging yourself by taking our medical coding quiz 5
Quiz5
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Test your coding skills with our basic quiz 5
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Which of the following ICD-10-CM codes does not describe a diagnosis of HIV?
Correct
A patient does not have to be HIV positive to report HIV counseling services (Z71.7) rendered during an encounter.
Incorrect
A patient does not have to be HIV positive to report HIV counseling services (Z71.7) rendered during an encounter.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 56-year-old patient presents for follow-up of type 2 diabetes. He is feeling good and has not had any problems since he began his oral medications. He is watching what he is eating and he has begun an exercise program. Which is the proper ICD-10-CM code?
Correct
The type of diabetes is specified as type 2, with no mention of complication. The correct ICD-10-CM code is E11.9 Type 2 diabetes mellitus without complications.
Incorrect
The type of diabetes is specified as type 2, with no mention of complication. The correct ICD-10-CM code is E11.9 Type 2 diabetes mellitus without complications.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A combination code is a single code used to classify
Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A sequela is:
Correct
Residual effect after acute phase of an injury or illness has terminated. Sequela: A pathological condition resulting from a prior disease, injury, or attack. As for example, a sequela of polio. Verbatim from the Latin “sequela” (meaning sequel). Plural: sequelae.
Incorrect
Residual effect after acute phase of an injury or illness has terminated. Sequela: A pathological condition resulting from a prior disease, injury, or attack. As for example, a sequela of polio. Verbatim from the Latin “sequela” (meaning sequel). Plural: sequelae.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Which is a new influenza vaccine code available for use February 1, 2015?
Correct
The two new influenza vaccine codes are available for use February 1, 2015:
• 90620 Meningococcal recombinant protein and outer membrane vesicle vaccine, serogroup B, 2 dose schedule, for intramuscular use
• 90621 Meningococcal recombinant lipoprotein vaccine, serogroup B, 2 or 3 dose schedule, for intramuscular use.Incorrect
The two new influenza vaccine codes are available for use February 1, 2015:
• 90620 Meningococcal recombinant protein and outer membrane vesicle vaccine, serogroup B, 2 dose schedule, for intramuscular use
• 90621 Meningococcal recombinant lipoprotein vaccine, serogroup B, 2 or 3 dose schedule, for intramuscular use. -
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Most claim denials for DME services are due to:
Correct
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) require very strict documentation for durable medical equipment (DME)
Incorrect
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) require very strict documentation for durable medical equipment (DME)
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
E/M documentation guidelines allow for using and updating a previous:
Correct
As per the 1995 and 1997 Documentation Guidelines for Evaluation and Management Services do not allow the history of present illness, examination, or plan and assessment to be copied, reviewed and labeled.
Incorrect
As per the 1995 and 1997 Documentation Guidelines for Evaluation and Management Services do not allow the history of present illness, examination, or plan and assessment to be copied, reviewed and labeled.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
The provider performs manual reduction of uncomplicated rib fracture. Proper coding is:
Correct
Closed treatment of an uncomplicated rib fracture should be reported using an appropriate E/M code, as per CPT instructions.
Incorrect
Closed treatment of an uncomplicated rib fracture should be reported using an appropriate E/M code, as per CPT instructions.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Modifier 50 can be applied to vertebroplasty codes 22510-22512
Correct
False. Modifier 50 is not appended as Codes 22510-22512 describe unilateral or bilateral procedures
Incorrect
False. Modifier 50 is not appended as Codes 22510-22512 describe unilateral or bilateral procedures
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Brucellosis includes:
Correct
Malta fever, Mediterranean fever and Undulant fever are included in Brucellosis as per ICD-10-CM Guidelines.
Incorrect
Malta fever, Mediterranean fever and Undulant fever are included in Brucellosis as per ICD-10-CM Guidelines.
Start challenging yourself by taking our medical coding quiz 4
Quiz4
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Test your coding skills with our basic quiz 4
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Blepharo means:
Correct
Blepharo means Eyelid, eyelids [Greek, from blepharon, eyelid]
Incorrect
Blepharo means Eyelid, eyelids [Greek, from blepharon, eyelid]
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Cleido means:
Correct
prefix meaning “clavicle”, clavicular or collarbone: cleidocostal, cleidocranial, cleidomastoid. Also spelled clido-, clid-.
Incorrect
prefix meaning “clavicle”, clavicular or collarbone: cleidocostal, cleidocranial, cleidomastoid. Also spelled clido-, clid-.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A patient presents with a skin lesion on the forehead that requires biopsy. The provider notices diagnoses a minor skin discoloration on the arm. He performs a biopsy of the lesion. Is it appropriate to bill an E/M service with the biopsy?
Correct
False. According to National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI), modifier 25 Significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service by the same physician or other qualified health care professional on the same day of the procedure or other service can be appended to an evaluation and management (E/M) service code when reported with minor surgical procedures or procedures not covered by global surgery rules. Because all procedures include pre-, intra-, and post-procedural work that is inherent in the procedure, providers must not report an E/M service code for this work. Payers will consider this to be “procedure code unbundling.” All the services described in this case are a standard part of the biopsy procedure. Reporting a separate E/M service will not be appropriate.
Incorrect
False. According to National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI), modifier 25 Significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service by the same physician or other qualified health care professional on the same day of the procedure or other service can be appended to an evaluation and management (E/M) service code when reported with minor surgical procedures or procedures not covered by global surgery rules. Because all procedures include pre-, intra-, and post-procedural work that is inherent in the procedure, providers must not report an E/M service code for this work. Payers will consider this to be “procedure code unbundling.” All the services described in this case are a standard part of the biopsy procedure. Reporting a separate E/M service will not be appropriate.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 75-year-old female has an abdominal mass. She was diagnosed with dyspepsia and a liver disorder. The physician needs to locate the mass or to rule it out. He performs an endoscopy of the small intestine with an endoscopic ultrasound examination, including the esophagus, stomach, and the duodenum. He does not perform a biopsy, either with the endoscopy or by Fine Needle Aspiration. Proper coding is:
Correct
There was no biopsy done, so there is no fine needle aspiration (FNA) to code. Proper coding is 43259 Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, flexible, transoral ; with endoscopic ultrasound examination, including the esophagus, stomach, and either the duodenum or a surgically altered stomach where the jejunum is examined distal to the anastomosis.
Incorrect
There was no biopsy done, so there is no fine needle aspiration (FNA) to code. Proper coding is 43259 Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, flexible, transoral ; with endoscopic ultrasound examination, including the esophagus, stomach, and either the duodenum or a surgically altered stomach where the jejunum is examined distal to the anastomosis.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Which of the following is NOT a specific requirement to bill services incident- to :
Correct
Non-physician practitioner professional services can be billed as incident-to with the following guidelines: New patients are not billed as incident-to.Established patients with new problems are not billed as incident-to. The supervising physicians must be present in the office and immediately available when billing incident-to (direct supervision is required). The physician does not have to provide a personal, professional service each time the patient is seen incident-to. He or she must remain directly involved with the patient’s care, or “there must be subsequent services by the physician of a frequency that reflects the physician’s continuing active participation in and management of the course of treatment”.
Incorrect
Non-physician practitioner professional services can be billed as incident-to with the following guidelines: New patients are not billed as incident-to.Established patients with new problems are not billed as incident-to. The supervising physicians must be present in the office and immediately available when billing incident-to (direct supervision is required). The physician does not have to provide a personal, professional service each time the patient is seen incident-to. He or she must remain directly involved with the patient’s care, or “there must be subsequent services by the physician of a frequency that reflects the physician’s continuing active participation in and management of the course of treatment”.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Medicare offers coverage for all of the following, except
Correct
Medicare do not recognize or reimburse CPT consultation codes (99241-99245, outpatient and 99251-99255, inpatient), but the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) does extend coverage to telehealth consultations, using dedicated G codes (G0425-G0247, telehealth consultations for inpatients, including those in a skilled nursing facility (SNF), or to patients in an emergency department (ED) and G0406-G0408, follow-up codes for SNF or hospital inpatients, and ED patients).
Incorrect
Medicare do not recognize or reimburse CPT consultation codes (99241-99245, outpatient and 99251-99255, inpatient), but the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) does extend coverage to telehealth consultations, using dedicated G codes (G0425-G0247, telehealth consultations for inpatients, including those in a skilled nursing facility (SNF), or to patients in an emergency department (ED) and G0406-G0408, follow-up codes for SNF or hospital inpatients, and ED patients).
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
When reporting an approved telehealth service, you must append modifier:
Correct
When reporting an approved telehealth service, you must append modifier GT Via interactive audio and video telecommunication systems to the appropriate service code(s). The modifier tells your Medicare contractor that the beneficiary was present at an eligible originating site when the telehealth service was furnished.
Incorrect
When reporting an approved telehealth service, you must append modifier GT Via interactive audio and video telecommunication systems to the appropriate service code(s). The modifier tells your Medicare contractor that the beneficiary was present at an eligible originating site when the telehealth service was furnished.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Celiac disease is what type of condition?
Correct
Celiac disease is characterized by an abnormal proximal small intestinal mucosa, is associated with a permanent intolerance to gluten (a protein found naturally in the grain of wheat, rye, oats, and barley), and can present itself at any time in a person’s life. Although the digestive system is the source of the problem, the disease is an autoimmune disorder.
Incorrect
Celiac disease is characterized by an abnormal proximal small intestinal mucosa, is associated with a permanent intolerance to gluten (a protein found naturally in the grain of wheat, rye, oats, and barley), and can present itself at any time in a person’s life. Although the digestive system is the source of the problem, the disease is an autoimmune disorder.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
All of the following describe testing for MRSA, except:
Correct
MRSA is an infection caused by a certain strain of staph bacteria resistant to common antibiotics. In 2007, the American Medical Association (AMA) introduced new procedure codes for MRSA testing: 87640 Staphylococcus aureus, amplified probe technique and 87641 Staphylococcus aureus, methicillin resistant, amplified probe technique. Since then, more affordable methodologies have come about, such as cultures by nasal swab (87081 Culture, presumptive, pathogenic organisms, screening only). CPT® 87015 Concentration (any type), for infectious agents should not be used to describe MRSA testing.
Incorrect
MRSA is an infection caused by a certain strain of staph bacteria resistant to common antibiotics. In 2007, the American Medical Association (AMA) introduced new procedure codes for MRSA testing: 87640 Staphylococcus aureus, amplified probe technique and 87641 Staphylococcus aureus, methicillin resistant, amplified probe technique. Since then, more affordable methodologies have come about, such as cultures by nasal swab (87081 Culture, presumptive, pathogenic organisms, screening only). CPT® 87015 Concentration (any type), for infectious agents should not be used to describe MRSA testing.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
What is ALS also known as?
Correct
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease of nerve cells affecting the brain’s ability to control muscle movement, eventually leading to paralysis and then death.
Incorrect
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease, is a progressive neurodegenerative disease of nerve cells affecting the brain’s ability to control muscle movement, eventually leading to paralysis and then death.
Start challenging yourself by taking our medical coding quiz 3
Quiz3
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Test your coding skills with our basic quiz 3
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A patient is treated for whole brain radiation therapy that requires a complex teletherapy isodose plan and two basic dosimetry calculations. Select the correct code(s) for this service.
Correct
The three 2014 codes for simple, intermediate, and complex teletherapy isodose plans (77305, 77310, and 77315) have been deleted, and replaced with two codes for simple and complex teletherapy isodose plans. New codes 77306 Teletherapy isodose plan; simple (1 or 2 unmodified ports directed to a single area of interest), includes basic dosimetry calculation(s) and 77307 Teletherapy isodose plan; complex (multiple treatment areas, tangential ports, the use of wedges, blocking, rotational beam, or special beam considerations), includes basic dosimetry calculation(s) — which applies, in this case — include basic dosimetry calculations. This means 77300 Basic radiation dosimetry calculation, central axis depth dose calculation, TDF, NSD, gap calculation, off axis factor, tissue inhomogeneity factors, calculation of non-ionizing radiation surface and depth dose, as required during course of treatment, only when prescribed by the treating physician is no longer reported in addition to these isodose plans
Incorrect
The three 2014 codes for simple, intermediate, and complex teletherapy isodose plans (77305, 77310, and 77315) have been deleted, and replaced with two codes for simple and complex teletherapy isodose plans. New codes 77306 Teletherapy isodose plan; simple (1 or 2 unmodified ports directed to a single area of interest), includes basic dosimetry calculation(s) and 77307 Teletherapy isodose plan; complex (multiple treatment areas, tangential ports, the use of wedges, blocking, rotational beam, or special beam considerations), includes basic dosimetry calculation(s) — which applies, in this case — include basic dosimetry calculations. This means 77300 Basic radiation dosimetry calculation, central axis depth dose calculation, TDF, NSD, gap calculation, off axis factor, tissue inhomogeneity factors, calculation of non-ionizing radiation surface and depth dose, as required during course of treatment, only when prescribed by the treating physician is no longer reported in addition to these isodose plans
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
True or False? A 9-month-old baby undergoes hernia repair. When reporting the anesthesia service, it’s appropriate to add CPT code 99100.
Correct
In this case, it’s incorrect to add 99100 Anesthesia for patient of extreme age, younger than 1 year and older than 70 (List separately in addition to code for primary anesthesia procedure) because anesthesia codes 00834 Anesthesia for hernia repairs in the lower abdomen not otherwise specified, younger than 1 year of age and 00836 Anesthesia for hernia repairs in the lower abdomen not otherwise specified, infants younger than 37 weeks gestational age at birth and younger than 50 weeks gestational age at time of surgery already take the patient’s age into consideration in the base unit value assigned, per the 2015 Relative Value Guide.
Incorrect
In this case, it’s incorrect to add 99100 Anesthesia for patient of extreme age, younger than 1 year and older than 70 (List separately in addition to code for primary anesthesia procedure) because anesthesia codes 00834 Anesthesia for hernia repairs in the lower abdomen not otherwise specified, younger than 1 year of age and 00836 Anesthesia for hernia repairs in the lower abdomen not otherwise specified, infants younger than 37 weeks gestational age at birth and younger than 50 weeks gestational age at time of surgery already take the patient’s age into consideration in the base unit value assigned, per the 2015 Relative Value Guide.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A female patient is diagnosed with childhood schizophrenia. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis in ICD-10-CM?
Correct
In ICD-9-CM, both childhood- type schizophrenia not otherwise specified (NOS) and schizophrenic syndrome of childhood NOS are reported using the subcategory of unspecified pervasive developmental disorder (PDD). In ICD-10-CM, these conditions are reported using subcategory F84.5 Asperger’s syndrome.
Incorrect
In ICD-9-CM, both childhood- type schizophrenia not otherwise specified (NOS) and schizophrenic syndrome of childhood NOS are reported using the subcategory of unspecified pervasive developmental disorder (PDD). In ICD-10-CM, these conditions are reported using subcategory F84.5 Asperger’s syndrome.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
If the same provider returns a patient to the operating room during the global period of a previous procedure to treat a complication of the earlier surgery, which modifier should you append?
Correct
If the same provider returns a patient to the operating room (OR) during the global period of a previous procedure to treat a complication of the earlier surgery, append modifier 78 Unplanned return to the operating/procedure room by the same physician or other qualified health care professional following initial procedure for a related procedure during the postoperative period to the CPT® code describing the follow-up procedure. “Related procedure” means the follow-up procedure is related to the original surgery, not to the underlying condition that prompted the original surgery.
Incorrect
If the same provider returns a patient to the operating room (OR) during the global period of a previous procedure to treat a complication of the earlier surgery, append modifier 78 Unplanned return to the operating/procedure room by the same physician or other qualified health care professional following initial procedure for a related procedure during the postoperative period to the CPT® code describing the follow-up procedure. “Related procedure” means the follow-up procedure is related to the original surgery, not to the underlying condition that prompted the original surgery.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A patient undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy on April 10. At a post-operative checkup 12 days later, the physician discovers a Bartholin’s gland cyst, which she removes. Which is the appropriate modifier to append for the second procedure?
Correct
Proper coding is 58150 Total abdominal hysterectomy (corpus and cervix), with or without removal of tube(s), with or without removal of ovary(s) and 56440-79 Marsupialization of Bartholin’s gland cyst. Modifier 79 Unrelated procedure or service by the same physician or other qualified healthcare professional during the postoperative period indicates the subsequent procedure is unrelated to the initial surgery (the “follow-up” procedure is not a result of the initial surgery or the diagnosis that prompted it). When you append modifier 79 to a claim, a new global period begins and the subsequent procedure is paid at 100 percent of the allowed amount, as determined by the carrier
Incorrect
Proper coding is 58150 Total abdominal hysterectomy (corpus and cervix), with or without removal of tube(s), with or without removal of ovary(s) and 56440-79 Marsupialization of Bartholin’s gland cyst. Modifier 79 Unrelated procedure or service by the same physician or other qualified healthcare professional during the postoperative period indicates the subsequent procedure is unrelated to the initial surgery (the “follow-up” procedure is not a result of the initial surgery or the diagnosis that prompted it). When you append modifier 79 to a claim, a new global period begins and the subsequent procedure is paid at 100 percent of the allowed amount, as determined by the carrier
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
If a less extensive procedure fails, and a more extensive procedure is required, the second procedure is payable separately with which modifier?
Correct
CMS policy (Medicare Claims Processing Manual chapter 12, section 40.1.B) states, “If a less extensive procedure fails, and a more extensive procedure is required, the second procedure is payable separately.” In such a case, modifier 58 Staged or related procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period is appropriate.
Incorrect
CMS policy (Medicare Claims Processing Manual chapter 12, section 40.1.B) states, “If a less extensive procedure fails, and a more extensive procedure is required, the second procedure is payable separately.” In such a case, modifier 58 Staged or related procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period is appropriate.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
The physician bills Medicare for simple radiation treatment delivery, 1.5 MeV. Proper coding is:
Correct
Physicians and freestanding centers (claims submitted on the CMS-1500 form) do not report new-for-2015 CPT treatment delivery or image guidance procedure codes for Medicare patients. These entities report HCPCS Level II codes for 2015; these codes have the same definitions as their CPT® counterparts (most of which have been deleted). The appropriate HCPCS Level II code for Radiation treatment delivery, >1MeV; simple is G6003 (CPT® 77402).
Incorrect
Physicians and freestanding centers (claims submitted on the CMS-1500 form) do not report new-for-2015 CPT treatment delivery or image guidance procedure codes for Medicare patients. These entities report HCPCS Level II codes for 2015; these codes have the same definitions as their CPT® counterparts (most of which have been deleted). The appropriate HCPCS Level II code for Radiation treatment delivery, >1MeV; simple is G6003 (CPT® 77402).
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Select the proper ICD-10-CM code to report Kanner’s syndrome
Correct
In ICD-10-CM, Kanner’s syndrome is listed as inclusive of F84.0 Autistic disorder.
Incorrect
In ICD-10-CM, Kanner’s syndrome is listed as inclusive of F84.0 Autistic disorder.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Phlebitis means inflammation of
Correct
Phlebitis is inflammation of vein
Incorrect
Phlebitis is inflammation of vein
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
The suffix – algia means
Correct
Suffix meaning pain, painful condition
Incorrect
Suffix meaning pain, painful condition
Start challenging yourself by taking our medical coding quiz 1
Quiz 1
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Test your coding skills with our basic quiz
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Centesis means:
Correct
Puncture a cavity to remove fluid.
Incorrect
Puncture a cavity to remove fluid.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Orrhea refers to:
Correct
Discharge or flow
Incorrect
Discharge or flow
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A single provider performs lumbar injection of contrast and radiological supervision and interpretation for thoracic and lumbar myelography. Proper CPT coding is:
Correct
Explanation: A complete myelography is a two-step procedure. A provider will inject a contrast medium (step one) to improve the visual contrast among structures viewed under the X-ray examination that follows (step two). CPT® includes four codes to describe the complete procedure when performed by a single provider: ● 62302 Myelography via lumbar injection, including radiological supervision and interpretation; cervical ● 62303 Myelography via lumbar injection, including radiological supervision and interpretation; thoracic ● 62304 Myelography via lumbar injection, including radiological supervision and interpretation; lumbosacral ● 62305 Myelography via lumbar injection, including radiological supervision and interpretation; 2 or more regions (eg, lumbar/thoracic, cervical/thoracic, lumbar/cervical, lumbar/thoracic/cervical) Because two or more regions are targeted, correct coding is 62305.
Incorrect
Explanation: A complete myelography is a two-step procedure. A provider will inject a contrast medium (step one) to improve the visual contrast among structures viewed under the X-ray examination that follows (step two). CPT® includes four codes to describe the complete procedure when performed by a single provider: ● 62302 Myelography via lumbar injection, including radiological supervision and interpretation; cervical ● 62303 Myelography via lumbar injection, including radiological supervision and interpretation; thoracic ● 62304 Myelography via lumbar injection, including radiological supervision and interpretation; lumbosacral ● 62305 Myelography via lumbar injection, including radiological supervision and interpretation; 2 or more regions (eg, lumbar/thoracic, cervical/thoracic, lumbar/cervical, lumbar/thoracic/cervical) Because two or more regions are targeted, correct coding is 62305.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
What are the required elements of critical care services?
Correct
Critical care illness/injury, critical care treatment, critical care time
Incorrect
Critical care illness/injury, critical care treatment, critical care time
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Modifier 58 is appropriate for all of the following, except when:
Correct
The follow-up procedure is to correct a complication of a prior procedure.
Explanation: To append modifier 58 Staged or related procedure or service by the same physician or other qualified healthcare professional during the postoperative period, the follow-up procedure does not have to be planned ahead of time; however, in all cases, the follow-up, related procedure is performed to treat an underlying condition, rather than as a result of the prior procedure. Stated another way, the follow-up procedure will “go beyond” the initial procedure, but is not performed due to a complication of the prior procedure. When treatment for complications requires a return to the operating or procedure room, append modifier 78 Unplanned return to the operating/procedure room by the same physician or other qualified health care professional following initial procedure for a related procedure during the postoperative period, rather than modifier 58, to the subsequent procedure code.Incorrect
The follow-up procedure is to correct a complication of a prior procedure.
Explanation: To append modifier 58 Staged or related procedure or service by the same physician or other qualified healthcare professional during the postoperative period, the follow-up procedure does not have to be planned ahead of time; however, in all cases, the follow-up, related procedure is performed to treat an underlying condition, rather than as a result of the prior procedure. Stated another way, the follow-up procedure will “go beyond” the initial procedure, but is not performed due to a complication of the prior procedure. When treatment for complications requires a return to the operating or procedure room, append modifier 78 Unplanned return to the operating/procedure room by the same physician or other qualified health care professional following initial procedure for a related procedure during the postoperative period, rather than modifier 58, to the subsequent procedure code. -
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Which modifier applies when an E/M service results in immediate decision to perform a surgical service with a 90-day global period?
Correct
Explanation: A procedure with a global period of 90 days is defined as a major surgical procedure. An E/M service performed on the same day as a major surgical procedure for the purpose of deciding whether to perform the surgical procedure is separately reportable with modifier 57. Other preoperative E/M services on the same date of service as a major surgical procedure are included in the global payment for the procedure and are not separately reportable.
Incorrect
Explanation: A procedure with a global period of 90 days is defined as a major surgical procedure. An E/M service performed on the same day as a major surgical procedure for the purpose of deciding whether to perform the surgical procedure is separately reportable with modifier 57. Other preoperative E/M services on the same date of service as a major surgical procedure are included in the global payment for the procedure and are not separately reportable.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A patient diagnosed with Beta-thalassemia minor should be coded under ICD-10-CM as:
Correct
D56.3
Incorrect
D56.3
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Secondary diabetes is ________________ caused by another condition or event.
Correct
Always
Incorrect
Always
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
What is the CPT code for an administration of a B12 injection?
Correct
96372
Incorrect
96372
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
HCPCS code J7699 denotes what type of drug when it is not otherwise classified?
Correct
Inhalation solution administered through durable medical equipment
Incorrect
Inhalation solution administered through durable medical equipment
Start challenging yourself by taking our medical coding quiz 2
Quiz2
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
Test your coding skills with our basic quiz 2
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Which is also known as Groin hernia?
Correct
Inguinal
Incorrect
Inguinal
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
The type of hernia that protrudes from the pelvic cavity through an opening in the pelvic bone.
Correct
Obturator
Incorrect
Obturator
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Which is the proper CPT code assignment for arthroscopic medial and lateral meniscal repair?
Correct
90472
Explanation: Arthroscopic medial and lateral meniscal repair is reported using 29883 Arthroscopy, knee, surgical; with meniscus repair (medial AND lateral).Incorrect
90472
Explanation: Arthroscopic medial and lateral meniscal repair is reported using 29883 Arthroscopy, knee, surgical; with meniscus repair (medial AND lateral). -
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
. Infusion services lasting_______ mins or less is reported with IV push codes.
Correct
15
Explanation: Without start and stop times, it’s impossible to establish that a drug infusion lasted more than 15 minutes. Infusion services lasting 15 or fewer minutes are reported with intravenous (IV) push codes (96409 Chemotherapy administration; intravenous, push technique, single or initial substance/drug or 96374 Therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic injection (specify substance or drug); intravenous push, single or initial substance/drug). Infusion services lasting longer than 15 minutes are reported with time-based infusion codes.Incorrect
15
Explanation: Without start and stop times, it’s impossible to establish that a drug infusion lasted more than 15 minutes. Infusion services lasting 15 or fewer minutes are reported with intravenous (IV) push codes (96409 Chemotherapy administration; intravenous, push technique, single or initial substance/drug or 96374 Therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic injection (specify substance or drug); intravenous push, single or initial substance/drug). Infusion services lasting longer than 15 minutes are reported with time-based infusion codes. -
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A patient with Type 1 diabetes with diabetic retinopathy is seen for an eye checkup. After a thorough examination, the ophthalmologist determines the patient has retinal edema. How should you code for ICD-10-CM?
Correct
E10.311
Incorrect
E10.311
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with hypersomnia. The correct ICD-10-CM code would be:
Correct
G47.10
Incorrect
G47.10
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
If a patient receives 20 mg of oral prednisone, how many units of J7506 should you code?
Correct
4
Incorrect
4
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A cancer patient receives an injection of 200 mg of cyclophosphamide. Which HCPCS level II code should you use?
Correct
J9080
Incorrect
J9080
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Sinusitis that lasts fewer than 4 weeks is considered to be:
Correct
Acute
Incorrect
Acute
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Stage IV pressure ulcer must extent to at least what depth:
Correct
Muscle
Incorrect
Muscle